Someone explain to me how the PM can announce a pay rise for salaried GPs?
GP practices are independent contractors and we are funded through a GMS contract which has no specific funding in it or reimbursement related to any staff we employ.
My understanding is its illegal to form a cartel and set a price for services so there is an open market for salaried GPs with them being paid usually on a per session basis – though the definition of the session and what work to be done in it varies from practice to practice – and is subject to local conditions and negotiation. Yes there is a suggested BMA contract but again its not mandatory.
So without funding General Practice more or changing the way we are funded – and in particular knowing what I pay my salaried GPs how can the PM tell me to pay them more? Does the government not know how its own health service works?
Update: to be fair there is now a letter stating that the GMS contract will be uplifted – this wasn’t in any of the reports I’d read when I posted. However it remains unclear which staff the letter refers to- and whether it will actually be enough to cover the stated uplift. It also begs the question how in principle they can force me to pass it on in full when there are no set pay grades